Bribery in Examination Settings

What Constitutes a Bribe, Even without Payment?

Question

Which of the following can constitute a bribe, even if the illicit payment is never actually made?

Answers

Explanations

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A. B. C. D.

A

In the context of the CFE (Certified Fraud Examiner) exam question, let's examine each answer choice to determine which one can constitute a bribe, even if the illicit payment is never actually made:

A. Offering a payment: This answer choice refers to the act of proposing or suggesting a payment as a bribe. Offering a payment can indeed constitute a bribe, regardless of whether the actual payment is eventually made. The act of making an offer to provide an illegal payment in exchange for favors, benefits, or preferential treatment is considered corrupt behavior.

B. Corruption in payment: This answer choice is not clear and may be confusing. However, if we interpret "corruption in payment" as referring to a situation where there is corrupt intent or an intention to offer a bribe, then it could potentially constitute a bribe, even without the actual payment taking place. It would depend on the specific circumstances and intent of the parties involved.

C. Kickback payment: A kickback payment typically involves the provision of an undisclosed payment or benefit to someone who has facilitated or influenced a business transaction. Kickbacks are often provided in exchange for preferential treatment, such as awarding a contract or securing a business deal. Even if the kickback payment is never actually made, the offer or agreement to provide such a payment can still be considered a bribe.

D. Overbilling in payment: Overbilling refers to the practice of intentionally inflating invoices or bills for goods or services provided. While overbilling itself may not directly constitute a bribe, it can be a mechanism to facilitate bribery. For example, if an individual or entity intentionally overbills for goods or services and then shares the excess amount with the recipient as a kickback or bribe, it would be considered corrupt behavior. However, if overbilling occurs without any corrupt intent or subsequent illicit payment, it may not meet the definition of a bribe.

In summary, among the answer choices provided, both option A (offering a payment) and option C (kickback payment) can constitute a bribe, even if the illicit payment is never actually made. Option B (corruption in payment) could potentially be interpreted in a way that aligns with the concept of a bribe, depending on the specific circumstances. Option D (overbilling in payment) may or may not constitute a bribe, depending on the intent and subsequent actions of the parties involved.