Exam 200-301 - All Questions

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?


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Refer to the exhibit. Which prefix does Router1 use for traffic to Host A?


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DRAG DROP -

Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on the right.

Select and Place:


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A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two.)


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DRAG DROP -

Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right.

Select and Place:


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How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?


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Which 802.11 frame type is Association Response?


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In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?


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What identifies the functionality of virtual machines?


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Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?


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When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two.)


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DRAG DROP -

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.

Select and Place:


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What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?


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An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routes. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?


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Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?


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Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?


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Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet?


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Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?


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What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two.)


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What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?


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Which action is taken by switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?


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What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?


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Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?


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Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface?


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Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (Choose two.)


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How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?


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What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two.)


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How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?


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Which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address?


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What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?


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What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two.)


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Which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4 public addresses?


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What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?


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A corporate office uses four floors in a building.

-> Floor 1 has 24 users.

-> Floor 2 has 29 users.

-> Floor 3 has 28 users.

Floor 4 has 22 users.

Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?


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Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?


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What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?


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An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor. One subnet must be used. Which command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual

Interface to use address space efficiently?


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DRAG DROP -

Drag and drop the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the IP traffic types on the right.

Select and Place:


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A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received. Which interface counter increments?


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Refer to the exhibit. Which outcome is expected when PC_A sends data to PC_B after their initial communication?


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Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions?


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How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery?


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A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. Which action must be taken to meet the requirement?


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DRAG DROP -

Drag and drop the application protocols from the left onto the transport protocols that it uses on the right.

Select and Place:


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What is the destination MAC address of a broadcast frame?


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For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses?


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DRAG DROP -

Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left on to the correct values on the right.

Select and Place:


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Which component of an Ethernet frame is used to notify a host that traffic is coming?


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You are configuring your edge routers interface with a public IP address for Internet connectivity. The router needs to obtain the IP address from the service provider dynamically.

Which command is needed on interface FastEthernet 0/0 to accomplish this?


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Which two statements about the purpose of the OSI model are accurate? (Choose two.)


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Which three statements about MAC addresses are correct? (Choose three.)


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Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure?


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Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design?


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Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose two.)


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What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)


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What are two benefits that the UDP protocol provide for application traffic? (Choose two.)


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Which two goals reasons to implement private IPv4 addressing on your network? (Choose two.)


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Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture?


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Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two.)


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What is the binary pattern of unique ipv6 unique local address?


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Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPV4 private IP space? (Choose two.)


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Refer to the exhibit. When PC1 sends a packet to PC2, the packet has which source and destination IP address when it arrives at interface Gi0/0 on router R2?


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What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?


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What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two.)


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Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?


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What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?


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Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two.)


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What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency?


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A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software that is only used occasionally. Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?


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What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)


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DRAG DROP -

Drag and drop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto their primary transmission protocols on the right.

Select and Place:


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An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use

5GHz access points?


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Which networking function occurs on the data plane?


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Under which condition is TCP preferred over UDP?


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Refer to the exhibit. Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path, users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB. What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?


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A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied, the engineer must compress the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface?


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What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate?


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What is a role of access points in an enterprise network?


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An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to create virtual machines on a host. What is needed to provide communication between hardware and virtual machines?


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How does a Cisco Unified Wireless Network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?


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In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization?


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DRAG DROP -

Drag and drop the characteristics of network architectures from the left onto the type of architecture on the right.

Select and Place:


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Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request?


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What is the difference in data transmission delivery and reliability between TCP and UDP?


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Refer to the exhibit. When PC-A sends traffic to PC-B, which network component is in charge of receiving the packet from PC-A, verifying the IP addresses, and forwarding the packet to PC-B?


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What is the maximum bandwidth of a T1 point-to-point connection?


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What are two similarities between UTP Cat 5e and Cat 6a cabling? (Choose two.)


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What is a characteristic of cloud-based network topology?


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Which network action occurs within the data plane?


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Refer to the exhibit. R1 has just received a packet from host A that is destined to host B. Which route in the routing table is used by R1 to reach host B?


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Which two network actions occur within the data plane? (Choose two.)


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What are network endpoints?


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Refer to the exhibit. The link between PC1 and the switch is up, but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?


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Why was the RFC 1918 address space defined?


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DRAG DROP -

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

Select and Place:


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DRAG DROP -

Drag and drop the IPv6 addresses from the left onto the corresponding address types on the right.

Select and Place:


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Which type of organization should use a collapsed-core architecture?


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A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001:0EB8:00C1:2200:0001:0000:0000:0331/64. To simplify the configuration, the administrator has decided to compress the address. Which IP address must the administrator configure?


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What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command?


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What occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?


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Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?


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Refer to the exhibit. Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge?

SW1: 0C:E0:38:41:86:07 -

SW2: 0C:0E:15:22:05:97 -

SW3: 0C:0E:15:1A:3C:9D -

SW4: 0C:E0:18:A1:B3:19 -


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DRAG DROP -

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is required to verify that the network parameters are valid for the users' wireless LAN connectivity on a /24 subnet. Drag and drop the values from the left onto the network parameters on the right. Not all values are used.

Select and Place:


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An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description type length value (TLV). Which command sequence must be implemented?


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Refer to the exhibit. Which switch becomes the root bridge?


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Which configuration ensures that the switch is always the root for VLAN 750?


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Refer to the exhibit. After the switch configuration, the ping test fails between PC A and PC B. Based on the output for switch 1, which error must be corrected?


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DRAG DROP -

Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Select and Place:


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Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?


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Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?


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Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?


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Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two.)


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Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?


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Refer to the exhibit. How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain?


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Refer to the exhibit. Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?


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Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol. SW1 is set to Dynamic Auto and SW2 is set to Dynamic Desirable. What is the result of this configuration?


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A Cisco IP phone receives untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?


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Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?


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Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between Switch 1 and Switch 2, while all other VLANs are to remain tagged.

Which command accomplishes this task?


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Which two command sequences must be configured on a switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two.)


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