Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?
B
Refer to the exhibit. Which prefix does Router1 use for traffic to Host A?
D
The prefix with ג€longest prefixג€ will be matched first, in this case is ג€/29ג€.
DRAG DROP -
Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on the right.
Select and Place:
A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two.)
AD
Whenever the physical transmission has problems, the receiving device might receive a frame whose bits have changed values. These frames do not pass the error detection logic as implemented in the FCS field in the Ethernet trailer. The receiving device discards the frame and counts it as some kind of input error.
Cisco switches list this error as a CRC error. Cyclic redundancy check (CRC) is a term related to how the FCS math detects an error.
The ג€input errorsג€ includes runts, giants, no buffer, CRC, frame, overrun, and ignored counts.
The output below show the interface counters with the ג€show interface s0/0/0ג€ command:
DRAG DROP -
Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right.
Select and Place:
This subnet question requires us to grasp how to subnet very well. To quickly find out the subnet range, we have to find out the increment and the network address of each subnet. Let's take an example with the subnet 172.28.228.144/18:
From the /18 (= 1100 0000 in the 3rd octet), we find out the increment is 64. Therefore the network address of this subnet must be the greatest multiple of the increment but not greater than the value in the 3rd octet (228). We can find out the 3rd octet of the network address is 192 (because 192 = 64 * 3 and 192 < 228) -
> The network address is 172.28.192.0. So the first usable host should be 172.28.192.1 and it matches with the 5th answer on the right. In this case we don't need to calculate the broadcast address because we found the correct answer.
Let's take another example with subnet 172.28.228.144/23 -> The increment is 2 (as /23 = 1111 1110 in 3rd octet) -> The 3rd octet of the network address is 228
(because 228 is the multiply of 2 and equal to the 3rd octet) -> The network address is 172.28.228.0 -> The first usable host is 172.28.228.1. It is not necessary but if we want to find out the broadcast address of this subnet, we can find out the next network address, which is 172.28.(228 + the increment number).0 or
172.28.230.0 then reduce 1 bit -> 172.28.229.255 is the broadcast address of our subnet. Therefore the last usable host is 172.28.229.254.
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?
A
Which 802.11 frame type is Association Response?
A
There are three main types of 802.11 frames: the Data Frame, the Management Frame and the Control Frame. Association Response belongs to Management
Frame. Association response is sent in response to an association request.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/802.11_Frame_Types
In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?
C
Spine-leaf architecture is typically deployed as two layers: spines (such as an aggregation layer), and leaves (such as an access layer). Spine-leaf topologies provide high-bandwidth, low-latency, nonblocking server-to-server connectivity.
Leaf (aggregation) switches are what provide devices access to the fabric (the network of spine and leaf switches) and are typically deployed at the top of the rack. Generally, devices connect to the leaf switches. Devices can include servers, Layer 4-7 services (firewalls and load balancers), and WAN or Internet routers.
Leaf switches do not connect to other leaf switches. In spine-and-leaf architecture, every leaf should connect to every spine in a full mesh.
Spine (aggregation) switches are used to connect to all leaf switches and are typically deployed at the end or middle of the row. Spine switches do not connect to other spine switches.
What identifies the functionality of virtual machines?
C
Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?
C
The ג€ipv6 address autoconfigג€ command causes the device to perform IPv6 stateless address auto-configuration to discover prefixes on the link and then to add the EUI-64 based addresses to the interface. Addresses are configured depending on the prefixes received in Router Advertisement (RA) messages. The device will listen for RA messages which are transmitted periodically from the router (DHCP Server). This RA message allows a host to create a global IPv6 address from:
ג€¢ Its interface identifier (EUI-64 address)
ג€¢ Link Prefix (obtained via RA)
Note: Global address is the combination of Link Prefix and EUI-64 address
When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two.)
DE
When an interface is configured with IPv6 address, it automatically joins the all nodes (FF02::1) and solicited-node (FF02::1:FFxx:xxxx) multicast groups. The all- node group is used to communicate with all interfaces on the local link, and the solicited-nodes multicast group is required for link-layer address resolution.
Routers also join a third multicast group, the all-routers group (FF02::2).
DRAG DROP -
Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.
Select and Place:
The ג€ip routeג€ and ג€ip addr show eth1ג€ are Linux commands.
ג€¢ ג€ip routeג€: display the routing table
ג€¢ ג€ip addr show eth1ג€: get depth information (only on eth1 interface) about your network interfaces like IP Address, MAC Address information
What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?
C
If the destination MAC address is not in the CAM table (unknown destination MAC address), the switch sends the frame out all other ports that are in the same
VLAN as the received frame. This is called flooding. It does not flood the frame out the same port on which the frame was received.
An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routes. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?
D
Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?
B
This question asks about the private ranges of IPv4 addresses. The private ranges of each class of IPv4 are listed below:
Class A private IP address ranges from 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
Class B private IP address ranges from 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
Class C private IP address ranges from 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
Only the network 172.28.0.0/16 belongs to the private IP address (of class B).
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?
D
Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet?
B
A IPv6 Unique Local Address is an IPv6 address in the block FC00::/7. It is the approximate IPv6 counterpart of the IPv4 private address. It is not routable on the global Internet.
Note: In the past, Site-local addresses (FEC0::/10) are equivalent to private IP addresses in IPv4 but now they are deprecated.
Link-local addresses only used for communications within the local subnet. It is usually created dynamically using a link-local prefix of FE80::/10 and a 64-bit interface identifier (based on 48-bit MAC address).
Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?
D
FF00::/8 is used for IPv6 multicast and this is the IPv6 type of address the question wants to ask.
FE80::/10 range is used for link-local addresses. Link-local addresses only used for communications within the local subnetwork (automatic address configuration, neighbor discovery, router discovery, and by many routing protocols). It is only valid on the current subnet. It is usually created dynamically using a link-local prefix of FE80::/10 and a 64-bit interface identifier (based on 48-bit MAC address).
What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two.)
BE
A late collision is defined as any collision that occurs after the first 512 bits (or 64th byte) of the frame have been transmitted. The usual possible causes are full- duplex/half-duplex mismatch, exceeded Ethernet cable length limits, or defective hardware such as incorrect cabling, non-compliant number of hubs in the network, or a bad NIC.
Late collisions should never occur in a properly designed Ethernet network. They usually occur when Ethernet cables are too long or when there are too many repeaters in the network.
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/internetworking/troubleshooting/guide/tr1904.html
What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
A
Which action is taken by switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?
A
PoE monitoring and policing compares the power consumption on ports with the administrative maximum value (either a configured maximum value or the port's default value). If the power consumption on a monitored port exceeds the administrative maximum value, the following actions occur:
- A syslog message is issued.
- The monitored port is shut down and error-disabled.
- The allocated power is freed.
What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?
C
Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?
A
Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface?
C
Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (Choose two.)
CE
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?
B
What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two.)
BD
How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?
D
Which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address?
D
What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?
D
What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two.)
AB
Which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4 public addresses?
D
What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?
C
A corporate office uses four floors in a building.
-> Floor 1 has 24 users.
-> Floor 2 has 29 users.
-> Floor 3 has 28 users.
Floor 4 has 22 users.
Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?
C
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?
D
What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?
D
An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor. One subnet must be used. Which command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual
Interface to use address space efficiently?
B
DRAG DROP -
Drag and drop the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the IP traffic types on the right.
Select and Place:
A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received. Which interface counter increments?
C
Refer to the exhibit. Which outcome is expected when PC_A sends data to PC_B after their initial communication?
C
Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions?
C
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery?
C
A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. Which action must be taken to meet the requirement?
A
DRAG DROP -
Drag and drop the application protocols from the left onto the transport protocols that it uses on the right.
Select and Place:
What is the destination MAC address of a broadcast frame?
B
For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses?
AE
DRAG DROP -
Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left on to the correct values on the right.
Select and Place:
SSH uses TCP port 22 while SNMP uses UDP port 161 and 162.
Which component of an Ethernet frame is used to notify a host that traffic is coming?
C
Preamble is a 7 Byte field in the Ethernet frame which helps to receiver to know that it is an actual data (Ethernet Frame) and not some random noise in the transmission medium. It acts like a doorbell telling about the incoming data.
You are configuring your edge routers interface with a public IP address for Internet connectivity. The router needs to obtain the IP address from the service provider dynamically.
Which command is needed on interface FastEthernet 0/0 to accomplish this?
D
Which two statements about the purpose of the OSI model are accurate? (Choose two.)
AB
Which three statements about MAC addresses are correct? (Choose three.)
ADE
Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure?
B
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design?
C
Each interface on a router must be in a different network. If two interfaces are in the same network, the router will not accept it and show error when the administrator assigns it.
Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose two.)
AE
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)
BC
What are two benefits that the UDP protocol provide for application traffic? (Choose two.)
AE
Which two goals reasons to implement private IPv4 addressing on your network? (Choose two.)
BD
Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture?
A
Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two.)
AC
What is the binary pattern of unique ipv6 unique local address?
B
A IPv6 Unique Local Address is an IPv6 address in the block FC00::/7, which means that IPv6 Unique Local addresses begin with 7 bits with exact binary pattern as 1111 110 -> Answer B is correct.
Note: IPv6 Unique Local Address is the approximate IPv6 counterpart of the IPv4 private address. It is not routable on the global Internet.
Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPV4 private IP space? (Choose two.)
AD
Refer to the exhibit. When PC1 sends a packet to PC2, the packet has which source and destination IP address when it arrives at interface Gi0/0 on router R2?
C
The source and destination IP addresses of the packets are unchanged on all the way. Only source and destination MAC addresses are changed.
What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?
C
What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two.)
AE
Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?
A
What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?
D
Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two.)
What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency?
A
A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software that is only used occasionally. Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?
D
What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)
CE
DRAG DROP -
Drag and drop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto their primary transmission protocols on the right.
Select and Place:
An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use
5GHz access points?
A
Which networking function occurs on the data plane?
D
Under which condition is TCP preferred over UDP?
C
Refer to the exhibit. Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path, users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB. What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?
A
A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied, the engineer must compress the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface?
C
What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate?
D
What is a role of access points in an enterprise network?
C
An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to create virtual machines on a host. What is needed to provide communication between hardware and virtual machines?
B
How does a Cisco Unified Wireless Network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?
D
In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization?
C
DRAG DROP -
Drag and drop the characteristics of network architectures from the left onto the type of architecture on the right.
Select and Place:
Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request?
B
What is the difference in data transmission delivery and reliability between TCP and UDP?
B
Refer to the exhibit. When PC-A sends traffic to PC-B, which network component is in charge of receiving the packet from PC-A, verifying the IP addresses, and forwarding the packet to PC-B?
A
What is the maximum bandwidth of a T1 point-to-point connection?
A
What are two similarities between UTP Cat 5e and Cat 6a cabling? (Choose two.)
BD
What is a characteristic of cloud-based network topology?
D
Which network action occurs within the data plane?
D
Refer to the exhibit. R1 has just received a packet from host A that is destined to host B. Which route in the routing table is used by R1 to reach host B?
B
Which two network actions occur within the data plane? (Choose two.)
DE
What are network endpoints?
B
Refer to the exhibit. The link between PC1 and the switch is up, but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?
B
Why was the RFC 1918 address space defined?
A
DRAG DROP -
Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.
Select and Place:
DRAG DROP -
Drag and drop the IPv6 addresses from the left onto the corresponding address types on the right.
Select and Place:
Which type of organization should use a collapsed-core architecture?
A
A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001:0EB8:00C1:2200:0001:0000:0000:0331/64. To simplify the configuration, the administrator has decided to compress the address. Which IP address must the administrator configure?
A
What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command?
What occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?
D
Enabling the PortFast feature causes a switch or a trunk port to enter the STP forwarding-state immediately or upon a linkup event, thus bypassing the listening and learning states.
Note: To enable portfast on a trunk port you need the trunk keyword ג€spanning-tree portfast trunkג€
Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?
A
Cisco Unified Wireless Network solution WLANs support four levels of QoS: Platinum/Voice, Gold/Video, Silver/Best Effort (default), and Bronze/Background.
b_cg74_CONSOLIDATED_chapter_01010111.html
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge?
SW1: 0C:E0:38:41:86:07 -
SW2: 0C:0E:15:22:05:97 -
SW3: 0C:0E:15:1A:3C:9D -
SW4: 0C:E0:18:A1:B3:19 -
C
DRAG DROP -
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is required to verify that the network parameters are valid for the users' wireless LAN connectivity on a /24 subnet. Drag and drop the values from the left onto the network parameters on the right. Not all values are used.
Select and Place:
An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description type length value (TLV). Which command sequence must be implemented?
D
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch becomes the root bridge?
B
Which configuration ensures that the switch is always the root for VLAN 750?
C
Refer to the exhibit. After the switch configuration, the ping test fails between PC A and PC B. Based on the output for switch 1, which error must be corrected?
D
DRAG DROP -
Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.
Select and Place:
The service port can be used management purposes, primarily for out-of-band management. However, AP management traffic is not possible across the service port. In most cases, the service port is used as a ג€last resortג€ means of accessing the controller GUI for management purposes. For example, in the case where the system distribution ports on the controller are down or their communication to the wired network is otherwise degraded.
A dynamic interface with the Dynamic AP Management option enabled is used as the tunnel source for packets from the controller to the access point and as the destination for CAPWAP packets from the access point to the controller.
The virtual interface is used to support mobility management, Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) relay, and embedded Layer 3 security such as guest web authentication. It also maintains the DNS gateway host name used by Layer 3 security and mobility managers to verify the source of certificates when Layer 3 web authorization is enabled.
Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?
B
The Static Persistence (or ג€onג€ mode) bundles the links unconditionally and no negotiation protocol is used. In this mode, neither PAgP nor LACP packets are sent or received.
Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?
B
A Lightweight Access Point (LAP) is an AP that is designed to be connected to a wireless LAN (WLAN) controller (WLC). APs are ג€lightweight,ג€ which means that they cannot act independently of a wireless LAN controller (WLC). The WLC manages the AP configurations and firmware. The APs are ג€zero touchג€ deployed, and individual configuration of APs is not necessary.
Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two.)
CD
Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?
C
ג€¢ lldp holdtime seconds: Specify the amount of time a receiving device should hold the information from your device before discarding it
ג€¢ lldp reinit delay: Specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on an interface
ג€¢ lldp timer rate: Set the sending frequency of LLDP updates in seconds
Refer to the exhibit. How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain?
D
The VTP mode of SW2 is transparent so it only forwards the VTP updates it receives to its trunk links without processing them.
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/vtp/10558-21.html
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?
B
From the neighbor status, we notice the ג€Flagsג€ are SP. ג€Pג€ here means the neighbor is in Passive mode. In order to create an Etherchannel interface, the (local)
SW1 ports should be in Active mode. Moreover, the ג€Port Stateג€ in the exhibit is ג€0x3cג€ (which equals to ג€00111100ג€³ in binary format). Bit 3 is ג€1ג€ which means the ports are synchronizing -> the ports are working so the local ports should be in Active mode.
Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol. SW1 is set to Dynamic Auto and SW2 is set to Dynamic Desirable. What is the result of this configuration?
D
A Cisco IP phone receives untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?
B
Untagged traffic from the device attached to the Cisco IP Phone passes through the phone unchanged, regardless of the trust state of the access port on the phone.
Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?
A
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between Switch 1 and Switch 2, while all other VLANs are to remain tagged.
Which command accomplishes this task?
D
Which two command sequences must be configured on a switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two.)